Critical Care Nursing Flashcards

Question 1

What does the term critical care describe in nursing practice?

Accepted Answer

Critical care describes the nursing care of patients who have actual or potential failure of one or more vital organ systems and who need frequent assessment, rapid response, and specialized equipment. The focus is on maintaining stability while the underlying problem is addressed by the wider team. Care is continuous and intensive, usually delivered in a dedicated unit.

Question 2

What is meant by the term acuity in patient care settings?

Accepted Answer

Acuity refers to how severe a patient's condition is and how much nursing time, skill, and monitoring that condition requires. Higher acuity means greater complexity and more frequent interventions. Facilities use acuity measures to plan staffing and to match patients with appropriate levels of care across the organization in a safe, timely way.

Question 3

What does the term hemodynamic stability mean in critical care?

Accepted Answer

Hemodynamic stability describes a state in which blood pressure, heart rate, and blood flow to the tissues are adequate to meet the body's needs. Nurses assess it by combining trends in several measurements rather than relying on a single reading. A stable trend is often more meaningful than one isolated value.

Question 4

What is the purpose of a rapid response or medical emergency team?

Accepted Answer

A rapid response team is a group that can be called to the bedside when a patient shows early signs of deterioration, before a cardiac or respiratory arrest occurs. Its purpose is early intervention aimed at preventing a crisis. Any staff member who is worried about a patient can usually activate it.

Question 5

What does the term sepsis refer to in general terms?

Accepted Answer

Sepsis is a term for a life-threatening response by the body to infection that causes injury to its own tissues and organs. It is a syndrome rather than a single disease, and it can progress quickly. Nurses use the term to describe risk and to prompt escalation of concern.

Question 6

What is the difference between a nurse's scope of practice and a standing order?

Accepted Answer

Scope of practice is the set of activities a nurse is legally and professionally permitted to perform, based on licensure, education, and employer policy. A standing order is a pre-written instruction, approved by a prescriber and facility, that nurses may carry out under defined conditions without a new order each time. Both must be followed exactly as written.

Question 7

What does the term invasive monitoring mean?

Accepted Answer

Invasive monitoring means measuring a physiological value by placing a device inside the body, such as into a blood vessel or a body cavity, rather than measuring from the surface. It often gives more continuous and detailed data than noninvasive methods. It also carries infection and bleeding risks that must be managed.

Question 8

What is a sedation scale and why do critical care teams use one?

Accepted Answer

A sedation scale is a standardized tool that describes a patient's level of alertness and responsiveness on a graded range. Teams use it so that everyone describes the patient's state in the same language, which supports safe communication and consistent goals. It is applied at set intervals and recorded each time.

Question 9

Why is accurate charting considered a core safety practice in critical care?

Accepted Answer

Accurate charting creates a shared, time-stamped record of what was observed and what was done, so every clinician works from the same information. Gaps or delays can hide trends and lead to missed changes. Good records also protect patients and staff legally and support quality review.

Question 10

What is the difference between an objective and a subjective finding in a nursing note?

Accepted Answer

An objective finding is something that can be observed or measured by anyone, such as a recorded value, a visible wound, or a color change. A subjective finding is what the patient reports in his or her own words, such as pain described as burning. Good notes keep these distinct and attribute subjective reports to the patient.

Question 11

What does trend analysis mean when reviewing serial vital sign records?

Accepted Answer

Trend analysis means reviewing a series of measurements over time to see whether a value is rising, falling, or staying steady. A single reading shows a moment, while a trend shows direction. Nurses use trends to notice gradual change that individual readings might not reveal.

Question 12

What is alarm fatigue and why does it matter for safety?

Accepted Answer

Alarm fatigue occurs when staff are exposed to so many monitor alarms, many of them false or clinically unimportant, that they begin to respond more slowly or tune them out. This increases the chance that a meaningful alarm is missed. Units address it through alarm settings review, prioritization, and education.

Question 13

What does the term intake and output balance refer to?

Accepted Answer

Intake and output balance is the comparison between all fluids and other intake entering the body and all fluids leaving it over a set period, usually a shift or a day. Nurses record intake from IV fluids, oral intake, and feeding tubes, and output from urine, drains, and other losses. The totals help the team judge how the patient is tolerating care.

Question 14

Why do critical care units use a standard handoff format?

Accepted Answer

A standard handoff format gives the receiving clinician the same categories of information every time, such as the reason for admission, current status, pending tasks, and risks. Structure reduces omissions when a patient moves between shifts or units. Many teams use a recognized mnemonic to keep the format consistent.

Question 15

What is an early warning score, in general terms?

Accepted Answer

An early warning score is a tool that assigns points to routine observations such as breathing, heart rate, temperature, and level of alertness. A higher total signals greater concern and triggers a defined escalation plan. The score supports consistent recognition of deterioration across staff members.

Question 16

What is meant by a time-stamped entry and why is it important?

Accepted Answer

A time-stamped entry is a record that shows the exact time an event or observation was documented, along with the author's identity. Timing matters because critical care changes quickly, and the sequence of events may guide decisions and reviews. Late entries should be labeled as late, not backdated.

Question 17

What is the purpose of hand hygiene in critical care settings?

Accepted Answer

Hand hygiene is the most important single measure for preventing the spread of microorganisms between patients and surfaces. In critical care, patients often have devices and open routes into the body, so transmission risk is high. Staff clean their hands before and after patient contact and after touching contaminated items.

Question 18

What does the term healthcare associated infection mean?

Accepted Answer

A healthcare associated infection is an infection a patient acquires during care in a facility that was not present or incubating when care began. Critical care units track these because patients have higher exposure to devices and procedures. Surveillance helps teams compare rates and target prevention.

Question 19

What is a care bundle and how does it support quality?

Accepted Answer

A care bundle is a small set of evidence-based practices that are performed together for a specific risk, such as device insertion or prevention of a particular complication. Bundling makes it easier for staff to remember and complete every element consistently. Compliance is audited, and the whole bundle is treated as the unit of measurement.

Question 20

What is a root cause analysis in quality improvement?

Accepted Answer

A root cause analysis is a structured review of an adverse event that seeks underlying system factors rather than blaming individuals. The team maps the sequence of events, identifies contributing factors, and proposes changes to processes. The goal is to prevent recurrence across the system.

Question 21

What does the term incident reporting mean and why is it encouraged?

Accepted Answer

Incident reporting is the process of documenting events that caused, or could have caused, harm to a patient, such as a medication mix-up or a fall. Reports are encouraged because they reveal hazards that would otherwise remain hidden. Many organizations treat reporting as a learning tool rather than a basis for punishment, provided the reporting is honest.

Question 22

What is the difference between a near miss and an adverse event?

Accepted Answer

An adverse event is an unintended outcome that caused harm to a patient. A near miss is an event that could have caused harm but did not, either because it was caught in time or because chance prevented injury. Both are valuable to report, since near misses often reveal the same weaknesses.

Question 23

What is a quality indicator in healthcare administration?

Accepted Answer

A quality indicator is a measurable value that reflects how well a process or outcome meets a defined standard, such as the proportion of eligible patients who receive a particular practice. Indicators allow comparison over time and between units. Good indicators are clearly defined so that everyone counts the same events the same way.

Question 24

What does the term personal protective equipment cover, and when is it used?

Accepted Answer

Personal protective equipment includes items such as gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection that create a barrier between staff and hazards. It is selected based on the expected type of exposure, such as contact, droplet, or airborne risk. Staff must put it on and remove it in an order that avoids self-contamination.

Question 25

What does closed loop communication mean?

Accepted Answer

Closed loop communication is a process in which the sender gives an instruction, the receiver repeats it back, and the sender confirms it is correct. The loop ensures that the message was heard and understood as intended. It is especially valuable for urgent orders and high-risk situations.

Question 26

What is SBAR and how is it used?

Accepted Answer

SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation, a structured way to communicate a concern briefly and clearly. The speaker states the problem, provides relevant history, gives an assessment, and proposes a specific request. It is widely used during escalation and handoffs.

Question 27

What is interdisciplinary rounding in a critical care unit?

Accepted Answer

Interdisciplinary rounds are regular structured reviews in which nurses, physicians, pharmacists, therapists, and others discuss each patient's goals, status, and plan. The purpose is to align the team and to catch gaps in care. Nurses often bring the bedside perspective and the patient's priorities into the discussion.

Question 28

What does the term chain of command mean in a clinical team?

Accepted Answer

Chain of command is the defined order in which concerns are escalated when a problem is not resolved at one level. A nurse who is worried about a patient usually speaks first with the bedside clinician, then with a supervisor or senior clinician if needed. Clear escalation pathways protect patients when delays are dangerous.

Question 29

What is the role of a charge nurse in a critical care unit?

Accepted Answer

The charge nurse coordinates daily operations, including staffing assignments, patient flow, bed availability, and response to urgent needs. This role oversees the whole unit rather than a single patient. Strong charge nurses balance workloads and escalate resource shortages early.

Question 30

Why is a shared mental model important for a critical care team?

Accepted Answer

A shared mental model is a common understanding among team members of the patient's condition, goals, and likely next steps. When team members hold different pictures, errors and conflicting actions become more likely. Briefings, huddles, and clear communication help build this shared view.

Question 31

What is a huddle in clinical practice?

Accepted Answer

A huddle is a brief, focused meeting, often held at the start of a shift, to share key information about patients, staffing, and safety concerns. It is short by design so that it can be held at the bedside or station without disrupting care. Huddles help identify risks early.

Question 32

What does the term delegation mean, and what must a nurse consider before delegating?

Accepted Answer

Delegation is the transfer of responsibility for a task to another person while the nurse retains accountability for the outcome. Before delegating, the nurse must consider the other person's competency, the task's risk, and whether the task is within that person's scope. Clear instructions and follow-up complete the process.

Question 33

What does the term informed consent mean in critical care?

Accepted Answer

Informed consent is a process in which a capable patient, or an authorized surrogate, receives relevant information about a proposed care decision and voluntarily agrees to it. The information includes benefits, risks, and alternatives. Consent can be withdrawn. Nurses support this process by clarifying understanding and documenting it accurately.

Question 34

What is a surrogate decision maker?

Accepted Answer

A surrogate decision maker is a person authorized to make healthcare decisions for a patient who lacks decision making capacity. Authority may come from a designated document or from a legal or local hierarchy, depending on jurisdiction. The surrogate is expected to act on the patient's known values and wishes where possible.

Question 35

What is the purpose of an advance directive?

Accepted Answer

An advance directive is a written document in which a person states preferences for future medical care in case he or she later cannot communicate. It may also name a healthcare agent. Nurses should know where these documents are kept and how to locate them during admission.

Question 36

What does the principle of patient autonomy mean?

Accepted Answer

Autonomy is the principle that competent people have the right to make decisions about their own care, including refusing treatment. In critical care, autonomy can be difficult to honor when a patient is unconscious or confused. Teams then look to prior wishes and surrogates to represent the patient's voice.

Question 37

What is moral distress, and why does it matter in intensive care?

Accepted Answer

Moral distress is the psychological strain that arises when a clinician knows the right course of action but cannot act on it because of constraints such as policy, staffing, or family conflict. It is common in intensive care and can contribute to burnout. Recognizing it openly helps teams support one another.

Question 38

What is palliative care and how does it relate to critical care?

Accepted Answer

Palliative care is care focused on relieving suffering and supporting quality of life for patients with serious illness, alongside any other treatment. It is not limited to the end of life, though it includes end of life care. Critical care units often integrate palliative approaches to support comfort, communication, and family needs.

Question 39

What does the term public health surveillance mean?

Accepted Answer

Public health surveillance is the ongoing, systematic collection and analysis of health data to detect patterns, outbreaks, and emerging threats in a population. Results guide prevention and response measures. In critical care, unit level surveillance of infections and events feeds into this wider system.

Question 40

What is triage, and how does it apply in a surge of patients?

Accepted Answer

Triage is the process of sorting patients by the urgency of their needs so that limited resources go where they are most needed first. During a surge, facilities may use formal triage systems that classify patients into priority categories. Nurses apply these categories consistently and document the rationale.

Critical Care Nursing Flashcards

1Core Terminology and Key Concepts

2Monitoring and Clinical Documentation

3Infection Prevention and Quality Systems

4Team Communication and Coordination

5Ethics, Family Support and Public Health

Learning Resources